JESUS vs MUHAMMAD
—THE BOOK —
T he Muslim author we have been quoting writes: “A textual contributor to the past record like Paul cannot obviously be completely trustworthy.” This is the pot calling the kettle black! Anyone who seriously investigates the Quran and Hadith will come away with a spirit of confusion - their books are just that.
Our author says, “The writings of Paul are so objectionable that one is extremely surprised as to how could he be an apostle of Jesus” (He then cites certain verses from our Bible). Take Romans 3:8, he writes: “Let us do evil that good may come”. This is exactly how this Muslim quotes it. But is he actually quoting the whole text? NO! Why? Because he is trying to put Paul in a negative light. Allow me to quote directly from the King James Version (or, I could quote from other versions as well - they all say the same thing): “And not rather (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say), let us do evil, that good may come? Whose damnation is just.” See the deceit our Muslim author puts forth? Paul did not say, “Let us do evil that good may come.” Paul said it was slanderously reported, and that some affirmed we said that. Our Muslim says, “How can such a person be reliable who changes his faith simply to entrap others to accept his own faith?...” HA! We might ask, why did your (false) prophet give the pagans two choices: repent and convert to Islam or DIE? Why did he give the People of the Book (Jews/Christians) the choice to repent and convert, pay poll tax all their days, or die? We’re waiting for an answer (see our other articles about these “choices”).
BACK TO ROMANS 3:8
Since our Muslim author uses deceit (really, a LIE!), LET US LOOK AT THE RSV: “And why not do evil that good may come? - as SOME PEOPLE slanderously charge us with saying? Their condemnation is just”. Paul was not saying that what they said is just, but that those saying this, deserve to be condemned. It has been argued however, that the “whose” in the KJV is subjective rather than objective, and that Paul is meaning here to acknowledge that the objector’s condemnation of him would be just as if he actually held the views ascribed to him. Whichever view is correct, Paul did not say, “Let us do evil that good may come”. This is the shabby and deceitful way Muslims degrade our Scriptures, This then makes the “lie” that our Book is corrupted. They are LIARS and under demon-inspiration. It is that simple. The “Your Book is corrupted” accusation by Islamic antagonists are still being heard. To score debating points in this way is more than intellectual sleight of hand, for it suggests a DANGEROUS complacency regarding true moral values.
We could take each verse our Muslim cites and show our readers just how DARKENED their minds are (some use deceit freely, others are ignorant).
SURAH IBRAHIM (Abraham 14)
I have in other articles shown that the Quran/Hadith speaks about the “Book” and the people who had it BEFORE Muhammad was “supposed” to have received “revelations”. Quoting from Abdullah Yusuf Ali’s Quran, Surah 14 (Chapter), verse one: “A Book which we have revealed unto thee, in order that thou mightest lead mankind out of the depths of darkness into light - by the leave of their Lord - to the Way of (Him) the Exalted in Power, worthy of all Praise!” Verse 2 says, “of God, to whom do belong all things in the heavens and on earth! But alas for the unbelievers for a terrible penalty, (their unbelief will bring them)!” Ali has a foot note about these two verses. His footnote # 1870 (verse 1) says, “It is insisted on that every prophet(or apostle) speaks not from himself but from God. His leading in to the light is but by the grace and mercy of God, not by any power of his own, or by any merit of those who hear him”. (1871 gives another comment about 14:1)
I want to concentrate on the word “mankind” (v.1). “The term ‘mankind’ in this instance cannot possibly mean all of humanity for the simple reason that there were Christians and Jews who have already had their revelations and there were also Zoroastrians, Buddhists and others with their own salutary beliefs”, as one Bible scholar, (converted from Islam) writes. True! I have already shown in other articles that Muhammad was a latecomer for “revelations”.
Since the People of the Book had already received “revelations” from God, there was no need of what Islam’s (false) prophet had to say - since his was an Arabic copy of theirs. It must be said then that the only “mankind” actually addressed here in Surah 14:1 were the pagans of Arabia. Let’s not forget that Islam brags about their “revelations” were in the perfect Arabic language, not Hebrew or Greek or Aramaic. But it must be said, first of all, the Quran is not in perfect Arabic. All one has to do is look at Surahs (or suras) such as 2:177, 192; 3:59; 4:162; 5:69; 7:160; 13:28; 20:66; 63:10 and others. Let me quote from Ali Dashti’s “23 years” book pp. 48 and 50: “The Quran contains sentences which are incomplete and not fully intelligible without the aid of commentaries; foreign words, unfamiliar Arabic word, and words used with other than the normal meaning. Adjectives and verbs inflected without observance of the concords of gender and number; illogically and ungrammatically applied pronouns which sometimes have no references and predicates which in rhymed passages are often remote from the subjects” (p.48) To sum up, more than 100 Quranic aberrations from the normal rules and structure of Arabic have been noted”. (P.50)
Arthur Jeffery’s, “The Foreign Vocabulary of the Quran” documents the FACT that there are over 100 non-Arabic words (1938, No. 79). In this “perfect” Quran that is “perfect” Arabic, we find words/phrases in Egyptian, Akkadian, Hebrew, Syriac, Greek, etc.
Besides Dashti and Jeffery, there is Middle East scholar Canon Sell who writes in, “Studies,” page 216, that “The number of foreign words is very great. They are borrowed from many languages. In the Mutawakkil by Jalaki’s-Din as-Syuti 107 words are enumerated and commented on.” Sell says that the above “Studies” has been translated by W.Y. Bell, Yale University. The Arabic text is also given. He proves for us that many things in the Quran have been borrowed (stolen!),
Muslims love to throw stones at the Christians and Jews and attack the Bible itself. Well, be informed, this is done because they don’t want us or anyone to point out all the Muslim cover-ups, missing verses, changes made, Surahs abrogated, Surahs/verses added, etc. I have already written on all these in our “Two Faces of Islam” Series.
I suggest you obtain Arthur Jeffery’s, “Materials for the History of the Text of the Quran” (1952). At one point, he gives the readers 90 pages of variant readings on the text. In Surah 2, he points out for us over 140 conflicting/variant readings on the text of the Quran. There is some good news in all this, Robert Morey (Islamic Invasion) tells us that in some scholarly Muslim Journals, there is beginning to be a grudging acknowledgment of this fact. Also, “A Study of 7 Quranic Variants”, by Saleh Al-Wahaihu has this information available ( Vol. 5 (1989), no. 2, PP 1-57, International Journal of Islamic/Arabic Studies).
BACK TO SURAH 14
Surah 14:4 : “We sent not an apostle except (to teach) in the language of his (own) people, in order to make (things) clear to them. Now God leaves straying those whom He pleases and guides whom He pleases: and He is exalted in power, full of wisdom”. Ali’s footnote no. 1874. Ali tells us, “If the object of a message is to make things clear, it must be delivered in the LANGUAGE (my emphasis) current among the people to whom the messenger is sent... There is even a wider meaning for “language”. It is not merely a question of alphabets, letters, or words...Allah’s message- being universal- can be expressed in all molds and forms, and is equally valid and necessary for all grades of humanity... the Quran... is the simplest as well as the most advanced.” (14:4). Nothing like Arabic HUBRIS!
May I point out that the Holy Bible had been in circulation for centuries (esp. the OT). What makes the Quran so special? Islam received nothing new; made up, yes!
So, 14:4 says that Arabic was the language. But Arabic was not, is not, a universal language, therefore the Quran was sent to the pagan Arabs - no one else. It was the followers/disciples of Muhammad who took the Arabic language into other nations as they spread Islam with the SWORD, murdering and subjugating millions of peoples/souls/cultures/ for this etc. All Muhammad did was form up his very own religion using (mainly) the Holy Scriptures.
“We sent Moses with our signs (and the command), ‘Bring out thy people from the depths of darkness into light, and teach them to remember the days of God! Verily in this there are signs for such as are firmly patient and constant...’” Ali’s footnote follows:
#1876 “The Days of Allah: the days when Allah’s mercy was specially shown to them. Every day and every hour and minute, Allah’s grace flows to us abundantly, but there are special events in personal or national history which may be commemorated as Red-letter Days. Those to the Israelites were set out in great detail in ii. 30-61 and on other places. (14:5) 1877 Sabbar is the intensive form, and includes all the ideas implied in Sabr (ii.45 and n.61, and ii.153 n. 157) in an intensive degree. Shakur and Shakir have in them the idea of appreciation, recognition, gratitude as shown in deeds of goodness and righteousness. Both terms are applied to Allah as well as to men. A slight distinction in shades of meaning may be noted. Shakur implies that the appreciation is even for smallest favors and response on the other side; it is a mental attitude independent of specific facts, Shakir implies bigger and more specific things”.
***This verse confirms the conclusion, that each prophet was ‘sent’ to enlighten -first and foremost - his own people, in their own language***
While Moses received “revelations” directly from the Lord, Muhammad received his second hand from Gabriel (which I do not for a moment believe!). But, whatever, we can see throughout the Quran that Islam’s (false) prophet exalted himself above all previous prophets. There is NO DOUBT as to WHY he did this: he was trying to form a religion like Christianity and Judaism. His was to be for the pagan Arabs.
Islamic belief in other prophets has brought it in tension with other faiths. And with this tension came terrorism.
One can see the difference in Muhammad’s early Meccan - even some early Medinan - “revelations.” They were friendly toward both the Jew and Christian (see 2:62 and 29:46).
But all changed. Muhammad’s rejection by others caused him to hate, even murder, his opponents (see 5:54 and 3:85). This last one tells us a lot!: “If anyone desires a religion other than Islam, never will it be accepted of him; and in the hereafter he will be in the ranks of those who have lost (all spiritual good).” From that came this: “Fight those who believe not in God... nor acknowledge the Religion of Truth, even if they are of the People of the Book, until they pay the jizya with willing submission and feel themselves subdued” - 9:29
Of course Muhammad was justified (in his own hateful heart) that the Jews/Christians were not walking right with God, therefore he had the right to murder and punish them. So, he set himself up as both judge and executioner. Because the Jews/Christians were not right with God (but ONLY Muhammad!), he made up many surahs that condemned them. With his HATRED for the Jews/Christians, his outlook changed concerning the Bible. This darkened Arab even thought he had the right to correct God’s Book! He charged them with “tampering” with their own Scriptures, which included concealing God’s Word (2:42; 3:71), verbally distorting the message (3:78; 4:46), not believing in all the parts of their Scriptures (2:85), and not knowing what their own Scriptures taught (2:78).
The above surahs point towards the fact that Muhammad was not illiterate as most claim, if so, how could he read the Scriptures, to find so much fault? And, with that thought, what Book (Bible) was still in existence that he could compare the condemned one with the right one? Never, ever has ANY Muslim produced a “correct” Bible.
Why is it that Muslims read our Bible today, along with the Quran. Do they have a “corrected” Bible? If our Bible has been distorted as they claim, let us see a non-distorted one. All this “Bible corruption” is merely a tactic in order to promote the Quran - which, by the way, drew its sources from the Book. But again, which Book? Trust me, the Quran is not divine! It contains much that says otherwise. Even Muslim scholars testify of this ( See our Two Faces of Islam series).
According to the Quranic evidence and orthodox Islam, their prophet was only a human being, a messenger. But as this study points out, Muhammad MADE HIMSELF a prophet (although he prophesied nothing, nor was he a creator or healer as was/is Jesus). And we have, in these lessons thus far, proved that Jesus was Messiah/Prophet/Savior, not only for the Jewish nation, but for the world! But Islam’s (false) prophet had to outdo Jesus. Muhammad Abul Quasem writes: “Every previous prophet of God was sent to a particular people, but Muhammad was sent to all human beings of the world until doomsday” (Salvation of the Soul and Islamic Devotions, 1983, p. 32). There can be millions of Muslims saying such things, BUT that does not make it true.
For Muslims, therefore, Muhamamd is the last and the greatest of all prophets (Khatam Al-anbiya). One needs to read Annemarie Schmmel’s, “And Muhammad is His Messenger” (1985) Schimmel points out that a well-known hadith glorifies Muhammad (the false prophet) says this about himself (see page 62) - “I have been granted excellence over the other prophets in six things (he list them)”. Talk about Arabic hubris, he lacked nothing!...except a tad of humility.
TO SUM IT UP
Geisler and Saleeb (Answering Islam) write: “Traditionally Islamic apologetics have provided several lines of reasoning for proving the superiority of Muhammad over previous prophets: ‘ the chief of these proofs’, according to the book Mizan-ul-Haqq, are:
1) That the O.T. and the N.T. both contain clear prophecies about him;
2) That the language and the teaching of the Quran are without parallel and thus the Quran alone is sufficient proof of the truth of Muhammad’s claims;
3) That Muhammad’s miracle(s) is (are) a seal set by God most high on his claims (hmmm!);
4) The his life and character prove him to have been the last and the greatest of the prophets;
5) That the rapid spread of Islam shows that God Most High sent it as his final revelation to men.” (See the above book (1986), pp. 225, 226). Wow! What was the author smoking???
All one has to do is compare Jesus with Muhammad and ask these questions—who was divine, who did miracles, who created, who forgave sins, who healed, who cast out devils, who DIED for the sins of mankind? JESUS alone!!